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Foxton's case implications

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  • Foxton's case implications

    What are the implications of Foxton's case for buy to let landlords? Does it mean that where a tenant stays longer than original rental agreement (typically a year) that the estate agent can no longer continue to charge a percentage (5%-10%) when the property is not managed i.e. let only? In other words, estate agent can only charge same amount irrespective of how long tenant stays?