I am trying to buy a new house and have been approved etc but the mortgage lender has included a clause in the contract that my current property (a flat) would also have its mortgage redeemed on completion of the contract (the flat mortgage is with Bank of Ireland so is not connected to the other lender). Thankfully my solicitor found this as it should not have been there - I do not need to sell to buy and I told my broker this when he arranged the mortgage.

The problem now is my broker is talking about "buy to let" mortgages on the flat which I really don't want to do - I want to buy this second property and then sell the flat a few months later, that is the idea. I have enough savings to cover both mortgages in the interim but the broker says this is irrelevant.

Surely there must be a way round this, as I cannot be the only person who is buying without the need to sell beforehand.

I am really unsure what to do - if the lender won't budge on the contract clause, would there be other lenders who wouldn't insist on this?